Valid PCCP Exam Q&A PDF PCCP Dump is Ready (Updated 227 Questions)
Exam Questions and Answers for PCCP Study Guide
NEW QUESTION # 12
What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)
- A. Long-term retention of logs
- B. Completely isolated system
- C. Consistent incident handling
- D. Scripting of manual tasks
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Scripting of manual tasks - SOAR platforms automate repetitive, manual security tasks through playbooks and scripting, improving response time and efficiency.
Consistent incident handling - SOAR ensures that incidents are managed in a standardized and repeatable manner, reducing errors and improving compliance.
Isolated system and log retention are not core advantages of SOAR.
NEW QUESTION # 13
Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
HTTPS is a protocol that encrypts and secures the communication between web browsers and servers. HTTPS uses SSL or TLS certificates to establish a secure connection and prevent unauthorized access or tampering of data. HTTPS typically uses port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS connections. Port 443 is different from port 80, which is the default port for HTTP connections. HTTP is an unencrypted and insecure protocol that can expose sensitive information or allow malicious attacks. Port 443 is also different from port 5050, which is a common port for some applications or services, such as Yahoo Messenger or SIP. Port 5050 is not associated with HTTPS and does not provide any encryption or security. Port 443 is also different from port
25, which is the default port for SMTP, the protocol used for sending and receiving emails. Port 25 is not associated with HTTPS and does not encrypt the email content or headers. References:
*Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) - Palo Alto Networks
*HTTPS Protocol: What is the Default Port for SSL & Common TCP Ports
*What is HTTPS? | Cloudflare
*Can I use another port other than 443 for HTTPS/SSL communication?
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?
- A. endpoint antivirus software
- B. strong endpoint passwords
- C. endpoint disk encryption
- D. endpoint NIC ACLs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Endpoint antivirus software is a type of software designed to help detect, prevent, and eliminate malware on devices, such as laptops, desktops, smartphones, and tablets. Endpoint antivirus software can block viruses that are not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall, which is a network security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. Perimeter firewall can block some known viruses, but it may not be able to detect and stop new or unknown viruses that use advanced techniques to evade detection. Endpoint antivirus software can provide an additional layer of protection by scanning the files and processes on the devices and using various methods, such as signatures, heuristics, behavior analysis, and cloud-based analysis, to identify and remove malicious code123. References:
* What Is Endpoint Antivirus? Key Features & Solutions Explained - Trellix
* Microsoft Defender for Endpoint | Microsoft Security
* Download ESET Endpoint Antivirus | ESET
NEW QUESTION # 15
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 16
What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)
- A. Communication with covert channels
- B. Lateral movement
- C. Deletion of critical data
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Lateral movement is a key stage where the attacker moves across the network to find valuable targets.
Privilege escalation involves gaining higher access rights to expand control within the compromised environment.
Communication with covert channels is a tactic used during persistence or exfiltration, while deletion of critical data is not a standard APT lifecycle stage - it's more characteristic of destructive attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 17
Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?
- A. SIEM
- B. IDS
- C. EDR
- D. DLP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) technologies provide comprehensive visibility and real-time threat prevention directly on endpoint devices. EDR continuously monitors process activities, file executions, and system calls to detect malware, suspicious behaviors, and zero-day threats at the source. Palo Alto Networks' Cortex XDR platform exemplifies this by correlating endpoint telemetry with network and cloud data to provide a holistic defense against attacks. Operating locally on endpoints allows EDR to prevent lateral movement and respond to threats quickly, filling security gaps that network-centric tools alone cannot address. This endpoint-level insight is critical to identifying sophisticated threats that initiate or manifest on user devices.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center?
- A. You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.
- B. You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.
- C. You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.
- D. You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A "ports first" data security solution is a traditional approach that relies on port numbers to identify and filter network traffic. This approach has several limitations and security weaknesses, such as12:
* Port numbers are not reliable indicators of the type or content of network traffic, as they can be easily spoofed or changed by malicious actors.
* Port numbers do not provide any visibility into the application layer, where most of the attacks occur.
* Port numbers do not account for the dynamic and complex nature of modern applications, which often use multiple ports or protocols to communicate.
* Port numbers do not support granular and flexible policies based on user identity, device context, or application behavior. One of the security weaknesses that is caused by implementing a "ports first" data security solution in a traditional data center is that you may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter. For example, if you have a web server that runs on port 80, you may have to open up port 80 on your firewall to allow incoming traffic. However, this also means that any other service or application that uses port 80 can also access your datacenter, potentially exposing it to attacks. Moreover, opening up multiple ports increases the attack surface area of your network, as it creates more entry points for attackers to exploit34. References: Common Open Port Vulnerabilities List - Netwrix, Optimize security with Azure Firewall solution for Azure Sentinel | Microsoft Security Blog, Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by ..., Which item accurately describes a security weakness ... - Exam4Training
NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the key to "taking down" a botnet?
- A. install openvas software on endpoints
- B. block Docker engine software on endpoints
- C. use LDAP as a directory service
- D. prevent bots from communicating with the C2
Answer: D
Explanation:
A botnet is a network of computers or devices that are infected by malware and controlled by a malicious actor, known as the botmaster or bot-herder. The botmaster uses a command and control (C2) server or channel to send instructions to the bots and receive information from them. The C2 communication is essential for the botmaster to maintain control over the botnet and use it for various malicious purposes, such as launching distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks, stealing data, sending spam, or mining cryptocurrency. Therefore, the key to "taking down" a botnet is to prevent the bots from communicating with the C2 server or channel. This can be done by disrupting, blocking, or hijacking the C2 communication, which can render the botnet ineffective, unstable, or inaccessible. For example, security researchers or law enforcement agencies can use techniques such as sinkholing, domain name system (DNS) poisoning, or domain seizure to redirect the bot traffic to a benign server or a dead end, cutting off the connection between the bots and the botmaster. Alternatively, they can use techniques such as reverse engineering, decryption, or impersonation to infiltrate the C2 server or channel and take over the botnet, either to disable it, monitor it, or use it for good purposes. References:
* What is a Botnet? - Palo Alto Networks
* Botnet Detection and Prevention Techniques | A Quick Guide - XenonStack
* Botnet Mitigation: How to Prevent Botnet Attacks in 2024 - DataDome
* What is a Botnet? Definition and Prevention | Varonis
NEW QUESTION # 20
Match the DNS record type to its function within DNS.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
The basic DNS record types are as follows:
# A (IPv4) or AAAA (IPv6) (Address): Maps a domain or subdomain to an IP address or multiple IP addresses
# CNAME (Canonical Name): Maps a domain or subdomain to another hostname
# MX (Mail Exchanger): Specifies the hostname or hostnames of email servers for a domain
# PTR (Pointer): Points to a CNAME; commonly used for reverse DNS lookups that map an IP address to a host in a domain or subdomain
# SOA (Start of Authority): Specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone such as primary name server, email address of the domain administrator, and domain serial number
# NS (Name Server): The NS record specifies aan authoritative name server for a given host.
# TXT (Text): Stores text-based information
NEW QUESTION # 21
You have been invited to a public cloud design and architecture session to help deliver secure east west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads.
What deployment options do you have available? (Choose two.)
- A. PA-Series
- B. CN-Series
- C. VM-Series
- D. Panorama
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
To deliver secure east-west flows and secure Kubernetes workloads in a public cloud environment, you have two deployment options available: VM-Series and CN-Series.
* VM-Series is a virtualized form factor of the Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewall that can be deployed in public cloud platforms such as AWS, Azure, Google Cloud, and Oracle Cloud. VM-Series provides comprehensive network security and threat prevention capabilities for protecting your cloud workloads and applications from cyberattacks. VM-Series can also integrate with native cloud services and third-party tools to enable automation, orchestration, and visibility across your cloud environment. VM-Series supports various deployment scenarios, such as securing internet-facing applications, protecting hybrid connectivity, segmenting internal networks, and enabling secure DevOps12.
* CN-Series is a containerized form factor of the Palo Alto Networks next-generation firewall that can be deployed in Kubernetes environments. CN-Series provides granular network security and threat prevention capabilities for protecting your Kubernetes pods and namespaces from cyberattacks. CN- Series can also integrate with Kubernetes network plugins and services to enable dynamic policy enforcement, service discovery, and visibility across your Kubernetes clusters. CN-Series supports various deployment scenarios, such as securing ingress and egress traffic, enforcing microsegmentation, and enabling secure DevSecOps34.
VM-Series in Public Cloud
VM-Series Deployment Guide
CN-Series in Kubernetes
CN-Series Deployment Guide
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?
- A. Alerts for new code introduction
- B. Continuous monitoring of resources
- C. Real-time protection from threats
- D. Integration with threat feeds
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM), including Prisma Cloud's offering, continuously monitors all cloud resources - such as compute instances, storage, network configurations, and identities - to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potential threats in near real time.
Reference: https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/prisma/cloud/cloud-security-posture-management
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?
- A. Impact
- B. Data exfiltration
- C. Persistence
- D. Privilege escalation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Privilege Escalation tactic in the MITRE ATT&CK framework involves techniques used by attackers to gain higher-level permissions on a system or network, allowing greater access to internal servers and sensitive data.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?
- A. It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.
- B. It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.
- C. It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.
- D. It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) is installed directly on an endpoint device (such as a server or workstation) and monitors local system activity, including processes, file access, and system calls, to detect and prevent malicious behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 26
In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
- A. Breach Response
- B. Initial Research
- C. Change Control
- D. Content Engineering
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
In SecOps, the identify stage is the first step in the security operations lifecycle. It involves gaining knowledge and understanding of the possible security threats and establishing methods to detect, respond and proactively prevent them from occurring1. Two of the components included in the identify stage are:
* Initial Research: This component involves gathering information about the organization's assets, vulnerabilities, risks, and compliance requirements. It also involves identifying the key stakeholders, objectives, and metrics for the SecOps project2.
* Content Engineering: This component involves developing and maintaining the security content, such as rules, policies, signatures, and alerts, that will be used by the SecOps tools and processes. It also involves testing and validating the security content for accuracy and effectiveness3.
What is SecOps? (and what are the benefits and best practices?), SecOps - definition & overview, The Six Pillars of Effective Security Operations
NEW QUESTION # 27
What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)
- A. Requirement for additional computational resources
- B. Manual reconfiguration
- C. Single point of failure
- D. Less security
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Static routing is a form of routing that occurs when a router uses a manually-configured routing entry, rather than information from dynamic routing traffic 1. Static routing has some advantages, such as simplicity, low overhead, and full control, but it also has some disadvantages, such as:
*Manual reconfiguration: Static routes require manual effort to configure and maintain. This can be time- consuming and error-prone, especially in large networks with many routes. If there is a change in the network topology or a link failure, the static routes need to be updated manually by the network administrator 23.
*Single point of failure: Static routing is not fault tolerant. This means that if the path used by the static route stops working, the traffic will not be rerouted automatically. The network will be unreachable until the failure is repaired or the static route is changed manually. Dynamic routing, on the other hand, can adapt to network changes and find alternative paths 23.
References: 1: Static routing - Wikipedia 2: Explain the benefits and drawbacks of static routing - Cisco Community 3: Dynamic versus Static Routing (3.1.2) - Cisco Press
NEW QUESTION # 28
When does a TLS handshake occur?
- A. Independently of HTTPS communications
- B. Only during DNS over HTTPS queries
- C. Before establishing a TCP connection
- D. After a TCP handshake has been established
Answer: D
Explanation:
A TLS handshake occurs after the TCP handshake is complete. The TLS handshake is responsible for establishing a secure, encrypted session between client and server, including the negotiation of encryption algorithms and exchange of keys.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?
- A. network protection
- B. dynamic computing
- C. compute security
- D. visibility, governance, and compliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured and adhere to your organization's security standards from day one is essential to prevent successful attacks. Also, making sure that these applications, and the data they collect and store, are properly protected and compliant is critical to avoid costly fines, a tarnished image, and loss of customer trust. Meeting security standards and maintaining compliant environments at scale, and across SaaS applications, is the new expectation for security teams.
NEW QUESTION # 30
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