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CompTIA CV0-003 exam consists of 90 multiple-choice and performance-based questions that must be completed within 90 minutes. CV0-003 exam is available in English and Japanese and can be taken online or in-person at a Pearson VUE testing center. CV0-003 exam is recommended for professionals who have at least two to three years of experience working with cloud technologies. By passing the exam, individuals can demonstrate their knowledge and skills in cloud computing, which can help them in advancing their careers or finding better job opportunities.
NEW QUESTION # 34
After announcing a big sales promotion, an e-commerce company starts to experience a slow response on its platform that is hosted in a public cloud. When checking the resources involved, the systems administrator sees the following consumption:
Considering all VMs were built from the same templates, which of the following actions should the administrator perform FIRST to speed up the response of the e-commerce platform?
- A. Spin up a new database server
- B. Spin up a new application server
- C. Add more memory to the web server
- D. Spin up a new web server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Spinning up a new web server is what the administrator should perform first to speed up the response of the e-commerce platform that is hosted in a public cloud and starts to experience a slow response after announcing a big sales promotion. A web server is a system or service that hosts and delivers web content, such as web pages, images, videos, etc., to clients over a network or internet connection. A web server can affect the response of an e-commerce platform by determining how fast it can process and serve web requests or responses from clients. Spinning up a new web server can speed up the response of an e-commerce platform by providing benefits such as:
Scalability: Spinning up a new web server can increase the scalability of the e-commerce platform by adding more capacity or resources to handle the increased demand or load caused by the sales promotion, without affecting the existing web servers.
Performance: Spinning up a new web server can improve the performance of the e-commerce platform by reducing the latency or overhead of processing and serving web requests or responses from clients, which may cause delays or errors.
NEW QUESTION # 35
A systems administrator is configuring RAID for a new server. This server will host files for users and replicate to an identical server. While redundancy is necessary, the most important need is to maximize storage.
Which of the following RAID types should the administrator choose?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference:
https://mysupport.netapp.com/NOW/public/eseries/sam_archive1150/index.html#page/GUID- 8538272A-B802-49D9-9EA2-96C82DAD26A2/GUID-1BF9A33B-C3A1-487C-B8D8-5F2C14E3ED2E.html
NEW QUESTION # 36
A cloud security analyst needs to ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications and must remediate any possible issue. The stateful configuration for the public web servers is as follows:
Which Of the following actions Should the analyst take to accomplish the Objective?
- A. Remove rules I, 3, and 4.
- B. Remove rules I, 2. and 5.
- C. Remove rules 3.4. and 5.
- D. Remove rules 2.3. and 4.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Remove rules 1, 3, and 4.
The objective is to ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications. This means that only HTTPS traffic should be allowed on port 443, which is the standard port for secure web connections.
HTTPS traffic uses the TCP protocol and encrypts the data between the client and the server.
Rule 1 allows all TCP traffic on any port from any source. This is too permissive and exposes the web servers to potential attacks or unauthorized access. Rule 1 should be removed to restrict the TCP traffic to only port
443.
Rule 3 allows all UDP traffic on any port from any source. UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not guarantee reliable or secure delivery of data. UDP is typically used for streaming media, voice over IP (VoIP), or online gaming, but not for web servers. Rule 3 should be removed to prevent unnecessary or malicious UDP traffic.
Rule 4 allows all ICMP traffic from any source. ICMP is a protocol that is used for diagnostic or control purposes, such as ping or traceroute. ICMP traffic can be used by attackers to scan or probe the network for vulnerabilities or information. Rule 4 should be removed to block ICMP traffic and reduce the attack surface.
Rule 2 allows TCP traffic on port 443 from any source. This is the desired rule that allows secure web communications using HTTPS. Rule 2 should be kept.
Rule 5 denies all other traffic that does not match any of the previous rules. This is the default rule that provides a catch-all protection for the web servers. Rule 5 should be kept.
Therefore, the analyst should remove rules 1, 3, and 4 to accomplish the objective.
NEW QUESTION # 37
An administrator is securing a private cloud environment and wants to ensure only approved systems can connect to switches. Which of the following would be MOST useful to accomplish this task?
- A. NAC
- B. WAF
- C. VLAN
- D. NIPS
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 38
A company wants to implement business continuity, and the cloud solution architect needs to design the correct solution.
Which of the following will provide the data to measure business continuity? (Choose two.)
- A. A backup and restore
- B. A service-level agreement
- C. A recovery time objective
- D. Playbooks
- E. A network diagram
- F. Automation scripts
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION # 39
A consultant is helping a gaming-as-a-service company set up a new cloud. The company recently bought several graphic card that need to be added to the servers. Which of the following should the consultant suggest as the MOST cost effective?
- A. Community
- B. SaaS
- C. Private
- D. Public
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 40
A cloud architect is reviewing four deployment options for a new application that will be hosted by a public cloud provider. The application must meet an SLA that allows for no more than five hours of downtime annually. The cloud architect is reviewing the SLAs for the services each option will use:
Based on the information above, which of the following minimally complies with the SLA requirements?
- A. Option A
- B. Option C
- C. Option B
- D. Option D
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option B is what minimally complies with the SLA (Service Level Agreement) requirements of allowing for no more than five hours of downtime annually for a new application that will be hosted by a public cloud provider. An SLA is a contract or agreement that defines the level of service or performance that a customer expects from a provider, such as availability, reliability, scalability, security, etc. An SLA can help to measure and monitor the quality and satisfaction of service or performance, as well as identify any penalties or rewards for meeting or failing to meet the SLA. Option B minimally complies with the SLA requirements by using services that have availability percentages that are equal to or higher than 99.95%, which translates to no more than five hours of downtime annually. Option B uses services such as:
Compute: This is a service that provides computing resources such as servers, processors, memory, etc., to run applications or functions. Option B uses compute service with availability percentage of 99.95%, which means that it guarantees to be available for 99.95% of the time in a year, and allows for no more than five hours of downtime in a year.
Storage: This is a service that provides storage resources such as disks, volumes, files, etc., to store data or information. Option B uses storage service with availability percentage of 99.99%, which means that it guarantees to be available for 99.99% of the time in a year, and allows for no more than one hour of downtime in a year.
Database: This is a service that provides database resources such as tables, records, queries, etc., to store and retrieve data or information. Option B uses database service with availability percentage of 99.95%, which means that it guarantees to be available for 99.95% of the time in a year, and allows for no more than five hours of downtime in a year.
NEW QUESTION # 41
A systems administrator is creating a playbook to run tasks against a server on a set schedule.
Which of the following authentication techniques should the systems administrator use within the playbook?
- A. Use the administrator's SSO credentials.
- B. Use the server's root credentials.
- C. Create a service account on the server.
- D. Hard-code the password within the playbook.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
A cloud security engineer needs to ensure authentication to the cloud pro-vider console is secure. Which of the following would BEST achieve this ob-jective?
- A. Require the password to be ten characters long.
- B. Require the password to contain uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols.
- C. Require the use of a password and a physical token.
- D. Require the user's source IP to be an RFC1918 address.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A password and a physical token are two factors of authentication that can provide a higher level of security than a password alone. A physical token is a device that generates a one-time code or password that the user must enter along with their password to access the cloud provider console. This is an example of multi-factor authentication (MFA), which requires the user to present two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity. MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the password is compromised, as the attacker would also need to have the physical token to log in.
NEW QUESTION # 43
After announcing a big sales promotion, an e-commerce company starts to experience a slow response on its platform that is hosted in a public cloud. When checking the resources involved, the systems administrator sees the following consumption:
Considering all VMs were built from the same templates, which of the following actions should the administrator perform FIRST to speed up the response of the e-commerce platform?
- A. Spin up a new database server
- B. Spin up a new application server
- C. Add more memory to the web server
- D. Spin up a new web server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Spinning up a new web server is what the administrator should perform first to speed up the response of the e-commerce platform that is hosted in a public cloud and starts to experience a slow response after announcing a big sales promotion. A web server is a system or service that hosts and delivers web content, such as web pages, images, videos, etc., to clients over a network or internet connection. A web server can affect the response of an e-commerce platform by determining how fast it can process and serve web requests or responses from clients. Spinning up a new web server can speed up the response of an e-commerce platform by providing benefits such as:
Scalability: Spinning up a new web server can increase the scalability of the e-commerce platform by adding more capacity or resources to handle the increased demand or load caused by the sales promotion, without affecting the existing web servers.
Performance: Spinning up a new web server can improve the performance of the e-commerce platform by reducing the latency or overhead of processing and serving web requests or responses from clients, which may cause delays or errors.
NEW QUESTION # 44
An administrator recently provisioned a file server in the cloud. Based on financial considerations, the administrator has a limited amount of disk space. Which of the following will help control the amount of space that is being used?
- A. Thick provisioning
- B. Software-defined storage
- C. User quotas
- D. Network file system
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 45
An organization is hosting a DNS domain with private and public IP ranges.
Which of the following should be implemented to achieve ease of management?
- A. A CDN solution
- B. An IPAM solution
- C. A SDN solution
- D. Network peering
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.infoblox.com/glossary/ipam-ip-address-management/
NEW QUESTION # 46
A systems administrator is creating a playbook to run tasks against a server on a set schedule.
Which of the following authentication techniques should the systems administrator use within the playbook?
- A. Hard-code the password within the playbook
- B. Use the administrator's SSO credentials
- C. Use the server's root credentials
- D. Create a service account on the server
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following is an authentication protocol that uses a ticket-based system for access control?
- A. Kerberos
- B. PKI
- C. WPA2
- D. Ciphers
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 48
A company is switching from one cloud provider to another and needs to complete the migration as quickly as possible.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration to ensure a seamless migration?
- A. The I/O of the storage
- B. Feature compatibility
- C. Network utilization
- D. The cost of the environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Feature compatibility is the degree to which the features or functionalities of a system or application are compatible or interoperable with another system or application. Feature compatibility is the most important consideration to ensure a seamless migration from one cloud provider to another, as it can affect the performance, reliability, and security of the system or application in the new cloud environment. Feature compatibility can also help complete the migration as quickly as possible, as it can reduce or eliminate the need for reconfiguration, customization, or testing of the system or application after the migration.
References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 18, section 3.5
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which of the following technologies allows for the secure exchange of encryption keys within an internal network?
- A. 3DES
- B. Diffie-Hellman
- C. AES
- D. RC4
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 50
A cloud engineer recently used a deployment script template to implement changes on a cloud-hosted web application. The web application communicates with a managed database on the back end. The engineer later notices the web application is no longer receiving data from the managed database. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
- A. Misconfiguration in the network ACL
- B. Misconfiguration in the firewall
- C. Misconfiguration in the user permissions
- D. Misconfiguration in the routing traffic
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The most likely cause of the issue is C. Misconfiguration in the network ACL. A network ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that controls the inbound and outbound traffic for a subnet or a virtual network in a cloud environment. A misconfiguration in the network ACL can block the communication between the web application and the managed database, resulting in data loss or unavailability. For example, according to the Azure SQL Database documentation1, if you use a virtual network service endpoint to secure your database, you need to configure the network ACL to allow traffic from the web application subnet to the database subnet. Otherwise, the web application will not be able to connect to the database. Similarly, according to the DigitalOcean tutorial2, if you use a managed database cluster, you need to add the web application's IP address or Droplet to the cluster's trusted sources list. Otherwise, the web application will not be able to access the database.
A misconfiguration in the user permissions, the routing traffic, or the firewall can also cause connectivity issues between the web application and the managed database, but they are less likely than a misconfiguration in the network ACL. A misconfiguration in the user permissions can prevent the web application from authenticating or authorizing with the database, but it will not affect the data transmission. A misconfiguration in the routing traffic can cause packets to be lost or delayed, but it will not block the communication entirely.
A misconfiguration in the firewall can filter out unwanted traffic, but it will not affect the traffic that is allowed by the network ACL. Therefore, these are not the most likely causes of the issue. For more information on how to troubleshoot connectivity issues between a cloud-hosted web application and a managed database, you can refer to the AWS documentation3 or the Google Cloud documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A SaaS provider wants to maintain maximum availability for its service.
Which of the following should be implemented to attain the maximum SLA?
- A. A hot site
- B. A cold site
- C. An active-active site
- D. A warm site
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An active-active site is a type of disaster recovery (DR) site that runs simultaneously with the primary site and handles part of the normal workload or traffic. An active-active site can help maintain maximum availability for a SaaS service, as it can provide load balancing, redundancy, and failover capabilities for the SaaS service in case of an outage or disruption at the primary site. An active-active site can also improve performance and scalability, as it can distribute the workload or traffic across multiple sites and handle increased demand or peak periods. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5
NEW QUESTION # 52
A systems administrator is using VMs to deploy a new solution that contains a number of application VMs.
Which of the following would provide high availability to the application environment in case of hypervisor failure?
- A. Cold migration
- B. Affinity rules
- C. Live migration
- D. Anti-affinity rules
Answer: D
Explanation:
Anti-affinity rules are rules or policies that prevent two or more VMs from running on the same host or cluster in a cloud environment. Anti-affinity rules can provide high availability to an application environment in case of hypervisor failure, as they can distribute or separate the application VMs across different hosts or clusters and avoid having a single point of failure. Anti-affinity rules can also improve performance and reliability, as they can reduce contention and load by balancing the resource utilization across multiple hosts or clusters. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5
NEW QUESTION # 53
An organization recently deployed a private cloud on a cluster of systems that delivers compute, network, and storage resources in a single hardware, managed by an intelligent software. Which of the following BEST describes this type of deployment?
- A. High-performance computing
- B. Dynamic allocations
- C. Stand-alone computing
- D. Hyperconverged infrastructure
Answer: D
Explanation:
Hyperconverged infrastructure (HCI) is a type of deployment that combines compute, network, and storage resources in a single hardware appliance that is managed by an intelligent software layer. HCI simplifies the configuration and management of cloud resources, reduces hardware costs and complexity, and improves scalability and performance. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A systems administrator has received an email from the virtualized environment's alarms indicating the memory was reaching full utilization. When logging in, the administrator notices that one out of a five-host cluster has a utilization of 500GB out of 512GB of RAM. The baseline utilization has been 300GB for that host. Which of the following should the administrator check NEXT?
- A. Storage array
- B. VM integrity
- C. Running applications
- D. Allocated guest resources
Answer: D
Explanation:
Allocated guest resources is what the administrator should check next after receiving an email from the virtualized environment's alarms indicating the memory was reaching full utilization and noticing that one out of a five-host cluster has a utilization of 500GB out of 512GB of RAM. Allocated guest resources are the amount of resources or capacity that are assigned or reserved for each guest system or device within a host system or device. Allocated guest resources can affect performance and utilization of host system or device by determining how much resources or capacity are available or used by each guest system or device. Allocated guest resources should be checked next by comparing them with the actual usage or demand of each guest system or device, as well as identifying any overallocation or underallocation of resources that may cause inefficiency or wastage.
NEW QUESTION # 55
A security audit related to confidentiality controls found the following transactions occurring in the system:
GET
http://gateway.securetransaction.com/privileged/api/v1/changeResource?id=123
&user=277
Which of the following solutions will solve the audit finding?
- A. Implementing a Layer 4 load balancer
- B. Deploying a HIDS on each system
- C. Using a TLS-protected API endpoint
- D. Implementing a software firewall
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 56
A cloud administrator configured a local cloud-resource pool lo offer 64GB of memory, 64 cores, and 640GB of storage. Thirty-two machines with identical resource allocations are started. but one machine is unable to handle requests. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
- A. Overwhelmed vCPU
- B. Incorrect VLAN assignment
- C. Insufficient guest bandwidth
- D. A storage error on the guest
- E. Inadequate memory allocation
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of one machine being unable to handle requests after deploying a new three-host cluster with identical resource allocations is that it has an overwhelmed vCPU (virtual CPU). An overwhelmed vCPU means that there is more demand for CPU resources than what is available on the host or VM. This could result in poor performance, high latency, or errors for the applications or processes that run on that machine. The systems administrator should monitor the CPU utilization and load on each machine and adjust them accordingly to balance the workload. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot capacity issues within a cloud environment.
NEW QUESTION # 57
A company developed a product using a cloud provider's PaaS platform and many of the platform-based components within the application environment.
Which of the following would the company MOST likely be concerned about when utilizing a multicloud strategy or migrating to another cloud provider?
- A. Authentication providers
- B. Vendor lock-in
- C. Service-level agreement
- D. Licensing
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following cloud service models would be recommended to a company for hardware capacity to host a production database application?
- A. CaaS
- B. XaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 59
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The CV0-003 exam covers a range of topics, including cloud architecture and design, security, virtualization, automation, and cloud management. It also includes a focus on various cloud service models, such as Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS). CV0-003 exam is designed to ensure that candidates have the necessary skills and knowledge to run cloud-based solutions that meet business requirements while maintaining a high level of security and compliance.
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