[Full-Version] 2025 Updated CompTIA Study Guide 220-1102 Dumps Questions
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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 (220-1102) is a globally recognized certification exam that assesses the competency of individuals in terms of installing, configuring, and troubleshooting software and hardware components of personal computers, mobile devices, and other digital devices. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 certification exam is designed for IT professionals who aim to advance their career in the IT industry by acquiring the necessary knowledge and skills to become a successful IT technician. Individuals who pass the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 will be able to demonstrate their proficiency in critical areas such as security, cloud computing, virtualization, and operational procedures.
NEW QUESTION # 279
A technician receives an invalid certificate error when visiting a website. Other workstations on the same local network are unable to replicate this issue. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- A. User access control
- B. UEFI boot mode
- C. Log-on times
- D. Date and time
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Date and time is the most likely cause of the issue. The date and time settings on a workstation affect the validity of the certificates used by websites to establish secure connections. If the date and time are incorrect, the workstation may not recognize the certificate as valid and display an invalid certificate error. Other workstations on the same local network may not have this issue if their date and time are correct. User access control, UEFI boot mode, and log-on times are not likely causes of the issue. User access control is a feature that prevents unauthorized changes to the system by prompting for confirmation or credentials. UEFI boot mode is a firmware interface that controls the boot process of the workstation. Log-on times are settings that restrict when a user can log in to the workstation. None of these factors affect the validity of the certificates used by websites. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Cert Guide, page 456
NEW QUESTION # 280
A technician is troubleshooting a customer's PC and receives a phone call. The technician does not take the call and sets the phone to silent. Which of the following BEST describes the technician's actions?
- A. Adhere to user privacy policy
- B. Set and meet timelines
- C. Avoid distractions
- D. Deal appropriately with customer's confidential material
Answer: C
Explanation:
The technician has taken the appropriate action by not taking the call and setting the phone to silent in order to avoid any distractions and remain focused on the task at hand. This is a good example of how to maintain focus and productivity when working on a customer's PC, and will help to ensure that the job is completed in a timely and efficient manner.
NEW QUESTION # 281
A user's Android phone has been randomly restarting. A technician investigates and finds several applications have been installed that are not available within the standard marketplace. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A. The OS update failed.
- B. The device is In developer mode.
- C. The user downloaded malware.
- D. The over-the-air carrier update failed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Random restarting of an Android phone and the presence of applications not from the standard marketplace strongly suggest the possibility of malware.
Option A: The OS update failed
While an OS update failure can cause issues, it is less likely to result in random restarts compared to malware.
Option B: The user downloaded malware
Malware is a common cause of erratic behavior, including random restarts, especially when applications are installed from unofficial sources.
Option C: The device is in developer mode
Developer mode alone does not typically cause random restarts. It may make the device more susceptible to issues if improper apps are installed.
Option D: The over-the-air carrier update failed
Similar to the OS update, this would more likely cause consistent issues rather than random restarts.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3 (Detect, remove, and prevent malware) and Objective 3.5 (Mobile OS and application security issues).
NEW QUESTION # 282
An Android user reports that when attempting to open the company's proprietary mobile application it immediately doses. The user states that the issue persists, even after rebooting the phone. The application contains critical information that cannot be lost. Which of the following steps should a systems administrator attempt FIRST?
- A. Reset the phone to factory settings
- B. Clear the application cache.
- C. Uninstall and reinstall the application
- D. Install an alternative application with similar functionality
Answer: C
Explanation:
The systems administrator should clear the application cache12
If clearing the application cache does not work, the systems administrator should uninstall and reinstall the application12 Resetting the phone to factory settings is not necessary at this point12 Installing an alternative application with similar functionality is not necessary at this point12
NEW QUESTION # 283
A user turns on a new laptop and attempts to log in to specialized software, but receives a message stating that the address is already in use. The user logs on to the old desktop and receives the same message. A technician checks the account and sees a comment that the user requires a specifically allocated address before connecting to the software. Which of the following should the technician do to MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A. Remove the static IP configuration from the desktop.
- B. Replace the network card in the laptop, as it may be defective.
- C. Bridge the LAN connection between the laptop and the desktop.
- D. Set the laptop configuration to DHCP to prevent conflicts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The new laptop was set up with the static IP it needs to connect to the software. The old desktop is still configured with that IP, hence the conflict.
NEW QUESTION # 284
A systems administrator installed the latest Windows security patch and received numerous tickets reporting slow performance the next day. Which of the following should the administrator do to resolve this issue?
- A. Rebuild user profiles.
- B. Roll back the updates.
- C. Restart the services.
- D. Perform a system file check.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rolling back the updates is the best way to resolve the issue of slow performance caused by installing the latest Windows security patch. This can be done by using the System Restore feature or by uninstalling the specific update from the Control Panel. Rebuilding user profiles, restarting the services and performing a system file check are not likely to fix the issue, since they do not undo the changes made by the update.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-roll-back-windows-updates
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 285
Which of the following security methods supports the majority of current Wi-Fi-capable devices without sacrificing security?
- A. WPA3
- B. MAC filleting
- C. TACACS+
- D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Explanation:
WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is a wireless security method that supports the majority of current Wi-Fi-capable devices without sacrificing security. It is backward compatible with WPA2 devices and offers enhanced encryption and authentication features. MAC filtering is another wireless security method, but it can be easily bypassed by spoofing MAC addresses. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) and TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) are network authentication protocols, but they are not wireless security methods by themselves. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/wireless-security-standards https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
NEW QUESTION # 286
A payroll workstation has data on it that needs to be readily available and can be recovered quickly if something is accidentally removed. Which of the following backup methods should be used to provide fast data recovery in this situation?
- A. Full
- B. Synthetic
- C. Incremental
- D. Differential
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A full backup does not depend on any previous backups, unlike differential or incremental backups, which only save the changes made since the last backup. A synthetic backup is a type of full backup that combines an existing full backup with incremental backups to create a new full backup, but it still requires multiple backup sets to recover data. Therefore, a full backup is the most suitable for the payroll workstation that needs to have its data readily available and recoverable. You can learn more about the differences between full, differential, incremental, and synthetic backups from this article.
NEW QUESTION # 287
Which of the following change management practices lists all the changes that are taking place for a project to ensure that no unexpected changes happen?
- A. Rollbackplan
- B. Risk analysis
- C. Scope
- D. Review
Answer: C
Explanation:
In change management, the scope of a project lists all the changes that are taking place. The scope ensures that all team members understand the boundaries and extent of the project, helping to prevent unexpected changes. Here's a detailed explanation:
* Scope: Defines the project's boundaries and deliverables, including all the planned changes. It ensures that everyone involved understands what is included and excluded in the project, minimizing unexpected changes.
* Risk analysis: Identifies potential risks and their impact but does not list the changes.
* Rollback plan: Provides a strategy for reverting changes if something goes wrong but does not list changes.
* Review: Involves evaluating changes but does not compile the list of changes.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Objectives, Section 4.2: Explain basic change-management best practices.
Change management documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 288
A change advisory board just approved a change request. Which of the following is the MOST likely next step in the change process?
- A. Sandbox testing
- B. Perform risk analysis
- C. Communicate to stakeholders
- D. End user acceptance
Answer: C
Explanation:
The risk analysis should be performed before it's taken to the board. The step after the board approves the change is End User Agreenment Reference: https://www.youtube.com/watch?
v=Ru77iZxuElA&list=PLG49S3nxzAnna96gzhJrzkii4hH_mgW4b&index=59
NEW QUESTION # 289
A user connected an external hard drive but is unable to see it as a destination to save files. Which of the following tools will allow the drive to be formatted?
- A. Device Manager
- B. Disk Defragmenter
- C. Disk Cleanup
- D. Disk Management
Answer: D
Explanation:
Disk Management is a tool that allows users to create, format, delete, shrink, extend, and manage partitions on hard drives. If the external hard drive is not formatted or has an incompatible filesystem type, Disk Management can be used to format it with a supported filesystem type such as NTFS, FAT32, or exFAT.
Device Manager, Disk Cleanup, and Disk Defragmenter are not tools that can format a hard drive.
NEW QUESTION # 290
Antivirus software indicates that a workstation is infected with ransomware that cannot be quarantined. Which of the following should be performed first to prevent further damage to the host and other systems?
- A. Install a different endpoint solution.
- B. Remove the LAN card.
- C. Turn off the machine.
- D. Run a full antivirus scan.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Turning off the machine is the first and most urgent step to prevent further damage to the host and other systems. Ransomware can encrypt files, steal data, and spread to other devices on the network if the infected machine remains online. Turning off the machine will stop the ransomware process and isolate the machine from the network12. The other options are either ineffective or risky. Running a full antivirus scan may not detect or remove the ransomware, especially if it is a new or unknown variant. Removing the LAN card may disconnect the machine from the network, but it will not stop the ransomware from encrypting or deleting files on the local drive. Installing a different endpoint solution may not be possible or helpful if the ransomware has already compromised the system or blocked the installation.
References: 1 3 steps to prevent and recover from
ransomware(https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/blog/2021/09/07/3-steps-to-prevent-and-recover-from-ra Guide | CISA(https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ransomware-guide).
NEW QUESTION # 291
A laptop that was in the evidence room of a police station is missing. Which of the following is the best reason to refer to chain of custody documentation?
- A. To remotely wipe sensitive data from the machine.
- B. To alert the owner that the password needs to be changed.
- C. To gather the information needed to replace the machine.
- D. To determine which party had the machine and when.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Chain of custody documentation is a record of the sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical or electronic evidence. It is important to maintain a chain of custody to ensure the integrity and authenticity of the evidence, and to prevent tampering or contamination. If a laptop that was in the evidence room of a police station is missing, the best reason to refer to chain of custody documentation is to determine which party had the machine and when. This can help to identify the possible suspects, locate the missing laptop, and verify if the evidence on the laptop was compromised or not
NEW QUESTION # 292
A technician needs to track evidence for a forensic investigation on a Windows computer. Which of the following describes this process?
- A. Data retention requirements
- B. Valid license
- C. Chain of custody
- D. Material safety data sheet
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 293
An executive has contacted you through the help-desk chat support about an issue with a mobile device.
Assist the executive to help resolve the issue.
Which of the following should be done NEXT?
- A. Educate the user on the solution that was performed.
- B. Tell the user to take time to fix it themselves next time.
- C. Close the ticket out.
- D. Send an email to Telecom to inform them of the Issue and prevent reoccurrence.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 294
Which of the following protocols supports fast roaming between networks?
- A. LEAP
- B. WPA2
- C. WEP
- D. WPA
- E. PEAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2 is the only protocol among the options that supports fast roaming between networks. Fast roaming, also known as IEEE 802.11r or Fast BSS Transition (FT), enables a client device to roam quickly in environments implementing WPA2 Enterprise security, by ensuring that the client device does not need to re-authenticate to the RADIUS server every time it roams from one access point to another1. WEP, WPA, LEAP, and PEAP do not support fast roaming and require the client device to perform the full authentication process every time it roams, which can cause delays and interruptions in the network service.
Reference:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide2, page 263.
WiFi Fast Roaming, Simplified3
NEW QUESTION # 295
A company wants to reduce the negative ecological impacts of its business and has decided to hire an e-waste company to dispose of equipment. Which of the following should the e-waste company provide the business7
- A. Certification of destruction
- B. Shredding/drilling
- C. Low-level formatting
- D. Non-disclosure agreement
Answer: A
Explanation:
When disposing of e-waste, it is important to ensure that the data on the equipment is securely destroyed and that the disposal process complies with environmental regulations.
Non-disclosure agreement: Relates to confidentiality, not disposal.
Certification of destruction: The correct document verifying that the equipment has been disposed of in accordance with regulations and standards, ensuring data is irretrievably destroyed.
Low-level formatting: A method to wipe data but does not guarantee compliance with e-waste disposal regulations.
Shredding/drilling: Physical destruction methods that might be used, but certification of destruction is the documentation needed.
NEW QUESTION # 296
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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2, also known as the CompTIA 220-1102 exam, is a certification exam designed for individuals who want to become certified in the field of IT. 220-1102 exam is the second part of the CompTIA A+ certification, which tests candidates on their knowledge and skills in computer hardware and software, networking, security, and troubleshooting. 220-1102 exam is intended for IT professionals, technicians, and support specialists who want to demonstrate their proficiency in the latest technologies and tools used in the industry.
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