CV0-004 Pre-Exam Practice Tests | (Updated 363 Questions)
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NEW QUESTION # 99
A newly configured VM fails to run application updates despite having internet access. The updates download automatically from a third-party network. Given the following output:
Which of the following troubleshooting steps would be best to take?
- A. Checking DNS configurations
- B. Running a trace to the router
- C. Testing the IP address configuration
- D. Reconfiguring routing protocols
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best troubleshooting step to take given the output is to check DNS configurations. The failure to resolve the "na.updateserver.net" domain suggests a DNS resolution issue, which could be due to incorrect DNS settings, a failure in the DNS service, or an issue with the DNS server itself.
NEW QUESTION # 100
A company migrated its CRM system to a SaaS solution. The security team is updating the RAG matrix for the newly migrated CRM. Given the following table:
Which of the following responsibility assignments best aligns with the shared responsibility model for the new CRM?
- A. CRM server patching
- B. CRM software security
- C. CRM development life cycle
- D. Data-center security
Answer: D
Explanation:
For the newly migrated SaaS CRM, the responsibility assignment that best aligns with the shared responsibility model is data-center security. In a SaaS model, the cloud service provider (CSP) is responsible for the security of the infrastructure, including data centers, while the customer is typically responsible for the data and possibly the user access management.
Reference: The shared responsibility model and its implications for different service models are foundational concepts included in the CompTIA Cloud+ certification, under the domain of Governance, Risk, Compliance, and Security.
NEW QUESTION # 101
A cloud administrator deploys new VMs in a cluster and discovers they are getting IP addresses in the range of
169.254.0.0/16. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. The network is overlapping.
- B. The NAT is Improperly configured.
- C. The scope has been exhausted.
- D. The VLAN is missing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
IP addresses in the range of 169.254.0.0/16 are Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) addresses, which devices assign themselves when they are configured to obtain an IP automatically but are unable to reach a DHCP server to get one. The most likely cause for VMs in a cluster to receive APIPA addresses is the exhaustion of the DHCP scope, meaning there are no more available IP addresses in the DHCP range to be assigned.
NEW QUESTION # 102
An DevOps engineer is receiving reports that users can no longer access the company's web application after hardening of a web server. The users are receiving the following error:
ERR_SSLJ/ERSION_OR_CIPHER_MISMATCH.
Which of the following actions should the engineer take to resolve the issue?
- A. Restart the web server.
- B. Review logs on the WAF
- C. Update the web server.
- D. Configure TLS 1.2 or newer.
Answer: D
Explanation:
To resolve the ERR_SSL_VERSION_OR_CIPHER_MISMATCH error after hardening a web server, the engineer should configure the server to use TLS 1.2 or newer. This error often occurs when the server or client supports an outdated version of SSL/TLS or incompatible cipher suites. Updating to a modern, secure version of TLS ensures compatibility and enhances security.
Reference: The CompTIA Cloud+ certification includes governance, risk, compliance, and security for the cloud, emphasizing the importance of implementing up-to-date security protocols like TLS to protect data in transit and ensure secure communications in cloud environments.
NEW QUESTION # 103
A healthcare organization must follow strict compliance requirements to ensure that Pll is not leaked. The cloud administrator needs to ensure the cloud email system can support this requirement Which of the following should the organization enable?
- A. ACL
- B. OLP
- C. IPS
- D. WAF
Answer: B
Explanation:
To ensure that Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is not leaked and to comply with strict healthcare regulations, the organization should enable Data Loss Prevention (DLP). DLP systems are designed to detect and prevent unauthorized access or sharing of sensitive data, making them ideal for securing PII in cloud email systems and ensuring compliance with healthcare industry standards.
Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ content covers governance, risk, compliance, and security aspects of cloud computing, highlighting the role of DLP in safeguarding sensitive information and maintaining compliance in regulated industries like healthcare.
NEW QUESTION # 104
The PMO wants to streamline the routing and approval of project activities to provide up-to-date visibility of the status. Which of the following collaboration tools would be most appropriate to use?
- A. Wiki knowledge base and search engine
- B. Real-time, multi-authoring tool
- C. Workflow and e-signature platform
- D. File-sharing platform and storage system
Answer: C
Explanation:
A workflow and e-signature platform automates approvals, routing, and visibility of project tasks.
This ensures that documents and activities are approved quickly and transparently, supporting operational efficiency. Real-time editing or file storage doesn't inherently provide workflow automation.
NEW QUESTION # 105
A cross-site request forgery vulnerability exploited a web application that was hosted in a public laaS network. A security engineer determined that deploying a WAF in blocking mode at a CDN would prevent the application from being exploited again. However, a week after implementing the WAF, the application was exploited again. Which of the following should the security engineer do to make the WAF control effective?
- A. Add an ACL to the VM subnet.
- B. Install endpoint protection software on the VMs
- C. Deploy an IDS on the laaS network.
- D. Configure the DDoS protection on the CDN.
Answer: A
Explanation:
After a WAF deployment fails to prevent an exploit, adding an Access Control List (ACL) to the Virtual Machine (VM) subnet can be an effective control. ACLs provide an additional layer of security by explicitly defining which traffic can or cannot enter a network segment. By setting granular rules based on IP addresses, protocols, and ports, ACLs help to restrict access to resources, thereby mitigating potential exploits and enhancing the security of the IaaS network.
NEW QUESTION # 106
An organization is working to become compliant with industry regulations. An administrator needs to amend the organization's existing log policy so that logs are available during the period in which the organization is audited. Which of the following should the administrator implement?
- A. Log tracing
- B. Log retention
- C. Log collection
- D. Log aggregation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Log retention ensures logs are stored and preserved for a defined period, meeting compliance requirements and guaranteeing availability during audits.
NEW QUESTION # 107
A developer is building a new application version using a CI/CD pipeline. The developer receives the following error message log when the build fails:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this failure?
- A. Broken build pipeline
- B. Incorrect version
- C. Test case failure
- D. Dependency issue
Answer: D
Explanation:
The error message indicates that the 'requests' module, which is a dependency, is not found. The failure is most likely due to the 'requests' library not being installed or not included in the environment where the application is running.
NEW QUESTION # 108
A systems administrator needs to configure a script that will monitor whether an application is healthy and stop the VM if an unsuccessful code is returned. Which of the following scripts should the systems administrator use to achieve this goal?
- A. RESPONSE_CODE }
string APP_URL
bool RESPONSE_CODE
string VM
health checker (APP_URL, VM) {
if [ http_probe (APP_URL) == 200] {
echo RESPONSE_CODE }
else{
stop (VM)
echo - B. else{
echo
string APP_URL
int RESPONSE_CODE
string VM
health_checker (APP_URL, VM) {
if [ http_probe (VM) == 200] {
stop (VM)
echo RESPONSE_CODE }
RESPONSE CODE } - C. else{
echo
string APP_URL
int RESPONSE CODE
string VM
health checker (APP_URL, VM) {
if [ http_probe (APP_URL) == 200] {
echo RESPONSE_CODE }
stop (VM)
RESPONSE_CODE } - D. else{
echo
string APP_URL
float RESPONSE_CODE
string VM
health_checker (APP_URL, VM) {
if [ http_probe (APP_URL) == 200] {
stop (RESPONSE_CODE)
echo VM }
stop (VM)
RESPONSE CODE }
Answer: A
Explanation:
Script A is designed to monitor the health of an application by checking its response code.
If the application returns a 200 (OK) status, it indicates that the application is healthy.
Otherwise, the script will stop the VM to address the issue, which is a common approach to handle unhealthy application states in automated environments. This script effectively achieves the goal of monitoring application health and taking corrective action when an unsuccessful code is returned.
NEW QUESTION # 109
A developer at a small startup company deployed some code for a new feature to its public repository. A few days later, a data breach occurred. A security team investigated the incident and found that the database was hacked. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this breach?
- A. Database core dump
- B. Compromised deployment agent
- C. Unpatched web servers
- D. Hard-coded credentials
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the data breach is hard-coded credentials being exposed in the public repository. If the developer accidentally included database usernames and passwords in the code and pushed it to a publicly accessible repository, attackers could easily find and use them to gain unauthorized access. This is a common security oversight that leads to database compromises.
Attackers often scan public repositories for sensitive information using automated tools, making hard-coded credentials a significant risk. Best practices include using environment variables, secret management tools (e.g., AWS Secrets Manager, HashiCorp Vault), and removing credentials from source code before committing.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A cloud architect is preparing environments to develop a new application that will process sensitive dat a. The project team consists of one internal developer, two external consultants, and three testers. Which of the following is the most important security control for the cloud architect to consider implementing?
- A. Setting up private development, public development, and testing environments
- B. Using IAM and ACL in order to bolster DLP
- C. Configuring DDoS protection to mitigate the risk of downtime
- D. Segregating environments for internal and external teams
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a project handling sensitive data with a mix of internal and external team members, implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) and Access Control Lists (ACL) is crucial for Data Loss Prevention (DLP). These controls ensure that only authorized individuals have access to specific resources, and actions are governed according to the principle of least privilege, minimizing the risk of data leakage or unauthorized access.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Once a year, a company's private cloud experiences increased activity. The company has a disaster recovery site that is hosted in a public cloud. To avoid investment in additional hardware, which of the following actions would BEST address this issue?
- A. Configure cloud bursting to spin up new VMs automatically and terminate them when usage is back to normal.
- B. Activate the disaster recovery site, and deactivate it when usage is back to normal.
- C. Manually add memory and CPU to existing VMs, and remove them when usage is back to normal.
- D. Create a new backup site and decommission it when usage is back to normal.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud bursting is a technique that allows you to automatically scale your cloud resources up or down based on demand. This can be a cost-effective way to address spikes in traffic or workload, without having to invest in additional hardware.
In this case, the company can configure cloud bursting to automatically spin up new VMs in the public cloud when the private cloud reaches its capacity. The new VMs will be terminated when the usage is back to normal. This will allow the company to handle the increased traffic without having to invest in additional hardware.
NEW QUESTION # 112
A developer is deploying a new version of a containerized application. The DevOps team wants:
* No disruption
* No performance degradation
* Cost-effective deployment
* Minimal deployment time
Which of the following is the best deployment strategy given the requirements?
- A. Canary
- B. Rolling
- C. In-place
- D. Blue-green
Answer: D
Explanation:
The blue-green deployment strategy is the best given the requirements for no disruption, no performance degradation, cost-effective deployment, and minimal deployment time. It involves maintaining two identical production environments (blue and green), where one hosts the current application version and the other is used to deploy the new version. Once testing on the green environment is complete, traffic is switched from blue to green, ensuring a seamless transition with no downtime.References: Understanding various cloud deployment strategies, such as blue-green deployments, is essential for managing cloud environments effectively, as highlighted in the CompTIA Cloud+ objectives, to ensure smooth and efficient application updates.
NEW QUESTION # 113
A cloud engineer wants to replace the current on-premises. unstructured data storage with a solution in the cloud. The new solution needs to be cost-effective and highly scalable. Which of the following types of storage would be best to use?
- A. SAN
- B. Block
- C. Object
- D. File
Answer: C
Explanation:
Object storage is ideal for cost-effective and highly scalable unstructured data. It allows for the storage of massive amounts of unstructured data in a flat namespace and is not constrained by the rigid structures of file or block storage. Object storage is highly durable and designed for high levels of scalability and accessibility.
Reference: The suitability of object storage for unstructured data and scalability is a part of cloud storage technologies covered in CompTIA Cloud+ materials.
NEW QUESTION # 114
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CompTIA Cloud+ (2025) Free Update Certification Sample Questions: https://torrentpdf.practicedump.com/CV0-004-exam-questions.html